Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 05:50
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
My husband asked me why do I keep on complaining about him cheating. Why don't I just leave?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What is the correct way to say "my pleasure" in French in the context of having given a gift?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Intercontinental Title Match Added To WWE Money In The Bank 2025 - eWrestlingNews.com
There's no rule.